Velvet Star Monitor

Standout celebrity highlights with iconic style.

updates

Is an integral always continuous?

Writer Mia Lopez
$\begingroup$

Say I have a function $f(x)$ on some interval $[a,b]$. Say it is integrable such that $\displaystyle\int f(x)~dx $ is defined.

Is $\displaystyle\int f(x)~dx $ necessarily continuous? If I were to know that the integral is integrable itself such that $\displaystyle\int \int f(x)~dx $ is defined. Would that change anything?

If so why?

Thank you

$\endgroup$ 9

3 Answers

$\begingroup$

One can prove the following

THM Let $f:[a,b]\to\Bbb R$ be Riemann integrable over its domain. Define a new function $F:[a,b]\to\Bbb R$ by $$F(x)=\int_a^x f(t)dt$$ Then $F$ is continuous. That is, the map $$f\mapsto \int_a^x f$$ sends $\mathscr R[a,b]$ to $\mathscr C[a,b]$.

PROOF Let $c\in[a,b]$. Then $$F(x)-F(c)=\int_c^x f(t)dt$$

Since $f$ is integrable, we know it is bounded, say $|f(x)|\leq M$ over $[a,b]$. Then $$ -\int_c^x M\;dt\leq \int_c^x f(t)dt\leq \int_c^xM \;dt$$

which means $$-M(x-c)\leq \int_c^x f(t)dt\leq M(x-c)$$

Thus we get $$|F(x)-F(c)|\leq M|x-c|$$

Taking $x\to c$ the squeeze theorem says $\lim\limits_{x\to c}F(x)=F(c)$. $\blacktriangle$

$\endgroup$ 6 $\begingroup$

I would like to add something to Pedro Tamaroff's answer. This would hold not only for Riemann-integrable functions but even Lebesgue-integrable ones.

Let $(X,\mu)$ be any measure space and $f$ be $\mu$-integrable. One can approximate $f$ (in general $\mathscr{L}^p$ functions) by simple functions. So given $\epsilon>0$ we can find a simple function $\phi$ such that $\int|f-\phi|d\mu<\frac{\epsilon}{2}$. Let $|\phi(x)|< M$ for all $x$. Now for any measurable set $A$ we have $$|\int\limits_Afd\mu-\int \limits_A\phi d\mu|\leq\int\limits_A|f-\phi|d\mu<\frac{\epsilon}{2}$$or $$|\int\limits_Afd\mu|<\frac{\epsilon}{2}+|\int\limits_A\phi d\mu|\leq\frac{\epsilon}{2}+M\mu(A)<\epsilon$$ whenever $\mu(A)<\frac{\epsilon}{2M}=\delta$.

Now for a Lebesgue-integrable function $f$ over $[a,b]$ we define $F(x)=\int\limits_a^x fd\lambda$. Then given $\epsilon>0$ we can find (as above) some $\delta>0$ such that $|F(x)-F(y)|=|\int\limits_y^xfd\lambda|<\epsilon$ whenever $|x-y|<\delta$. This proves the (uniform) continuity of $F$.

Moreover, this function is differentiable almost everywhere.

$\endgroup$ $\begingroup$

The following is worth pointing out:

Firstly, note that if we replace "continuous" with "differentiable", the new statement isn't true. For instance, the function $$\mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$$ $$x \mapsto \begin{cases} 1, & x \geq 0 \\ -1 & x < 0\end{cases}$$ has $x \mapsto |x|$ as an indefinite integral, which is not differentiable.

We do however have the following: if $f$ is Riemann integrable over its domain and $F$ is defined as in Pedro's answer, then: $$f \mbox{ continuous at } x \rightarrow F \mbox{ differentiable at } x$$

Here's a nice article about such things. In the parlance of that article, we'd say that $|x|$ is an indefinite integral of the aforementioned step function, but not an antiderivative.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

Sign up or log in

Sign up using Google Sign up using Facebook Sign up using Email and Password

Post as a guest

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy