$\frac{M(x,y)}{N(x,y)}$ is homogeneous of degree zero
Matthew Martinez 
According to the first theorem on Homogeneous Functions, "If $M(x,y)$ and $N(x,y)$ are both homogeneous and of the same degree, then function $\frac{M(x,y)}{N(x,y)}$ is homogeneous of degree zero."
Is it applicable to use $f((\lambda)(x), (\lambda)(y)) = (\lambda)^k(f(x,y))$ to prove that $\frac{M(x,y)}{N(x,y)}$ is homogeneous of degree zero?
Any help is highly appreciated. Thank You.
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